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What is the difference between having a right and having an effective remedy?
Discussion in 'Rights & Remedies' started by John, 24 Aug 2026.
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What's your take on this — what experience or question can you share?
It is often said that a right without a remedy is no right at all. But what exactly distinguishes a right from the remedy available when that right is violated? Are there situations where a right clearly exists but the available remedy is so limited that the right is effectively meaningless? Share examples from case law or statute where the gap between right and remedy became apparent.
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