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John agrees by text to sell Mark his car for £5,000. Mark replies 'Deal.' Has a binding agreement formed?
Discussion in 'Contracts & Consent' started by John, 24 Aug 2026.
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What's your take on this — what experience or question can you share?
Scenario: John sends a text message to Mark offering to sell his car for £5,000. Mark replies with a single word: 'Deal.' The following morning, John changes his mind and tells Mark the car is no longer for sale.
Question: Has a binding agreement already been formed? What principles would you examine before reaching a conclusion? Does the method of communication affect the analysis, and would your answer differ if Mark had simply replied with a thumbs-up emoji?
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